以下是小编精心整理的有关于全国Ⅰ卷高考英语试题(含参考答案)范文,欢迎各位阅读和借鉴。

全国Ⅰ卷高考英语试题(含参考答案)

第二部分阅读(共两节,满分 50分)

第一节(共 15小题;每小题 2.5分,满分 37.5分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature

Grading Scale

90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.

Essays (60%)

Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade

for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2 = 15%; Essay 3 = 15%; Essay 4 =

20%.

Group Assignments (30%)

Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during

the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date

through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.

Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework (10%)

Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be readyto

complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned

readings or notes from the previous class’ lecture/discussion, so it is

important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time totime

I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments tobe

completed at home, both of which will be graded.

Late Work

An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter gradefor

each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day afterthe due

date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during classwill

get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence willbe

accepted.

21. Where is this text probably taken from?

A. A textbook.

B. An exam paper.

D. An academic article.

C. A course plan.

22. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of?

A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.

23. What will happen if yosubmit an essay one week after the duedate?

A. Yowill receive a zero.

C. Yowill be given a test.

B. Yowill lose a letter grade.

D. Yowill have to rewrite it.

B

Like most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The

arugula (芝麻菜 ) was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast

chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a

dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed,the

arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I

could have made six salads with what I threw out.

In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, “foodwaste

goes against the moral grain,” as Elizabeth Royte writes in thismonth’s

cover story. It’s jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrownaway

— from “ugly” (but quite eatable) vegetables rejected by grocers tolarge

amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.

Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other

resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmentalproblem.

In fact, Royte writes, “if food waste were a country, it would be thethird

largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world.”

If that’s hard to understand, let’s keep it as simple as the arugula atthe

back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time—

but for him, it’s more like 12 boxes of donated strawberries nearingtheir

last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington, D.C.,which

recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recoveredmore

than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collectingblemished

(有瑕疵的) produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the

strawberries? Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for usein

meals down the road.

Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don’t think. “Everyone

can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food

than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not

include the side dish yowon’t eat.” Curtin says.

24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?

A. We pay little attention to food waste.

B. We waste food unintentionally at times.

C. We waste more vegetables than meat.

D. We have good reasons for wasting food.

25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text?

A. Moral decline.

B. Environmental harm.

C. Energy shortage.

D. Worldwide starvation.

26. What does Curtin’s company do?

A. It produces kitchen equipment.

B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.

C. It helps local farmers grow fruits.

D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.

27. What does Curtin suggest people do?

A. Buy only what is needed.

B. Reduce food consumption.

C. Go shopping once a week.

D. Eat in restaurants less often.

C

The elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being given

hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.

The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce

loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being usedto

help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff incare

homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens arein

use.

Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She

said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their

breakfast each morning before I went to school.

“I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in themorning

letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they’ve gone tobed.

“It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their

children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watchthem.

I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have donesomething

useful.”

There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in

the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll itout

countrywide.

Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first

to embark on the project, said: “Residents really welcome the idea ofthe

project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefitsand

fun the project can bring to people here.”

Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: “We are happy tobe

taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residentsthrough a

shared interest and creative activities.”

28. What is the purpose of the project?

A. To ensure harmony in care homes.

B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.

C. To raise money for medical research.

D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare.

29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?

A. She has learned new life skills.

B. She has gained a sense of achievement.

C. She has recovered her memory.

D. She has developed a strong personality.

30. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7?

A. Improve.

B. Oppose.

C. Begin.

D. Evaluate.

31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?

A. It is well received.

B. It needs to be more creative.

D. It takes ages to see the results.

C. It is highly profitable.

D

Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the

common “m” and “a” to the rare clicks of some southern Africanlanguages.

But why are certain sounds more common than others? A ground-breaking,

five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led tonew

speech sounds that are now found in half the world’s languages.

More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech

sounds called labiodentals, such as “f” and “v”, were more common inthe

languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers ledby

Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found howand

why this trend arose.

They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human

adults were aligned (对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which

are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, ourjaws

changed to an overbite structure (结构), making it easier to produce such

sounds.

The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the

development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easierto

chew at this point. The jawbone didn’t have to do as much work and so

didn’t grow to be so large.

Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global

change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with theuse

of “f” and “v” increasing remarkably during the last few thousandyears.

These sounds are still not found in the languages of manyhunter-gatherer

people today.

This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds

were present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. “The

set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable sincethe

appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speechsounds

that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like

biological change and cultural evolution,” said Steven Moran, a memberof

the research team.

32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi’s research

focus on?

A. Its variety.

B. Its distribution.

D. Its development.

C. Its quantity.

33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to producelabiodentals?

A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.

B. They could not open and close their lips easily.

C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.

D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.

34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?

A. Supporting evidence for the research results.

B. Potential application of the research findings.

C. A further explanation of the research methods.

D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.

35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?

A. It is key to effective communication.

B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.

C. It is a complex and dynamic system.

D. It drives the evolution of human beings.

第二节(共 5小题;每小题 2.5分,满分 12.5分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选

项中有两项为多余选项。

Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled “Five Reasons to Thank

Your Workout Partner.” One reason was: “You’ll actually show up if you

know someone is waiting for yoat the gym,” while another read: “ 36 ”

With a workout partner, yowill increase your training effort as there isa

subtle (微妙) competition.

So, how do yofind a workout partner?

First of all, decide what yowant from that person.

37

Or do you

just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength andflexibility?

Think about the exercises yowould like to do with your workoutpartner.

Yomight think about posting what yoare looking for on social media,

but it probably won’t result in a useful response. If yoplan on

38

working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.

My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her

notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a

week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and herage.

It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided herphone

number.

39

Yoand your partner will probably have different skills.

40

Over

time, both of yowill benefit — your partner will be able to lift more

weights and yowill become more physically fit. The core (核心) of your

relationship is that yowill always be there to help each other.

A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.

B. A workout partner usually needs to live close by.

C. You’ll work harder if yotrain with someone else.

D. Do yowant to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?

E. How can yowrite a good “seeking training partner” notice?

F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.

G. Any notice for a training partner should include such information.

第三部分语言运用(共两节,满分 30分)

第一节(共 15小题;每小题 1分,满分 15分)

阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入

空白处的最佳选项。

My husband, our children and I have had wonderful camping

experiences over the past ten years.

Some of our

41

are funny, especially from the early years when

along Chalk Creek. I was

our children were little. Once, we

42

以下是小编精心整理的有关于全国Ⅰ卷高考英语试题(含参考答案)范文,欢迎各位阅读和借鉴。

全国Ⅰ卷高考英语试题(含参考答案)

第二部分阅读(共两节,满分 50分)

第一节(共 15小题;每小题 2.5分,满分 37.5分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature

Grading Scale

90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.

Essays (60%)

Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade

for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2 = 15%; Essay 3 = 15%; Essay 4 =

20%.

Group Assignments (30%)

Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during

the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date

through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.

Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework (10%)

Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be readyto

complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned

readings or notes from the previous class’ lecture/discussion, so it is

important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time totime

I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments tobe

completed at home, both of which will be graded.

Late Work

An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter gradefor

each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day afterthe due

date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during classwill

get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence willbe

accepted.

21. Where is this text probably taken from?

A. A textbook.

B. An exam paper.

D. An academic article.

C. A course plan.

22. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of?

A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.

23. What will happen if yosubmit an essay one week after the duedate?

A. Yowill receive a zero.

C. Yowill be given a test.

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